John was contrasting the dominant characteristics of these two ages. His words clearly state that both knowing and believing are important. “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who does not enter by the door into the fold of the sheep, but climbs up some other way, he is a thief and a robber. John 1:16 grace upon grace NASB [or grace in place of grace NABRE]. Friday, January 12, 2018. Answer: “For from [Christ’s] fullness we have all received, grace upon grace” … Now in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate there is a pool, called in Hebrew Beth-zatha, which has five porticoes. Born Again Defined. 1,019 +22 Baptist Married. SAME SUBJECT CONTINUED. Read the Scripture: John 11:1-16 I want to talk this morning about the hardest problem to handle in the Christian life. Christ, who is full of grace and truth, is also indwelt with the ‘fulness of the Godhead’, meaning the Father and the Spirit also took up their abode in Him. 'Grace upon Grace' — John 1:16-17. This does not mean that what was in the law was not true. Why does the Bible use the lion symbol for good and bad examples? We have also (according to John 1:16) received ‘grace for grace’. John 5:1-16 The Word of God . 10 “Most assuredly, I say to you, he who does not enter the sheepfold by the door, but climbs up some other way, the same is a thief and a robber. It does not take into account a wrong suffered, nor does it rejoice in unrighteousness. The we allof John 1:16, which implies the existence of the Church, in any case excludes the supposition that John the Baptist is still speaking in John 1:16. It looks deeply at the world God has made - looks through it, so to speak - and by the grace of God, it sees the glory of God (as Psalm 19:1 says) standing forth off the creation like a 3-D image. Use this table to get a word-for-word translation of the original Greek Scripture. What does it mean that the Word became flesh (John 1:14)? Why did Jesus choose the … He picks up on this theme again here in verse 6. So, what is the big deal with John 3:16? Either translation is good since the Greek allows it. It is imperative that the serious student of the Bible come to a basic understanding of logos, which is translated as “Word” in John 1:1.Most Trinitarians believe that the word logos refers directly to Jesus Christ, so in most versions of John logos is capitalized and translated “Word” (some versions even write “Jesus Christ” in John 1:1). The gospel wants to remind us that this is the Passover, with all of its meaning and symbolism. Meaning of John 10:1-6 — The Interpretation. Q5. — John 1:16-17 NLT. Perfect love is a responsible love, a giving love, a gracious love that disperses fear, perfects the saint, and is the greatest gift of all. And (2) man’s understanding is finite, whereas God is infinite. Several versions of the Bible translate this phrase as ‘grace upon grace’, which, I believe, is its literal meaning. Neither does this mean that it is easy to understand all that is to be known of God because; (1) sin has a limiting effect upon human understanding. Pilate goes outside and declares his ruling to the Jews that he finds no guilt in him. I guess I am what you would call a plant killer. John adds, “Out of his fullness we have all received grace in place of grace already given” (1:16). What did Jesus do with His eyes when He began to pray? The Prologue To John's Gospel 15 John * testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘ He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. Because from his fulness we all received. And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace. It is GOD’S UNMERITED FAVOR upon those who deserve the opposite. Israel had returned to the sins of their forefathers and, God says, “refused to listen to my words.” The people were joined to their idols. For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 19-24. John 1:16 Translation & Meaning. Let’s read again John 1:16, “And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.” What is this fullness speaking of? John 1:1-18 . It would be interesting to poll the congregation here as to what you think that would be. Whatever the original text in this particular verse, John clearly places Jesus right next to God as fully divine (John 1:1-3, etc.). John 3:18 states, “He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.” This means that our witness to unbelievers must include sin, righteousness, and judgment, along with faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, as the only remedy for our helpless condition. Here it means the plenitude of divine attributes, the "glory . Wrongly so, John 3:16 is often written as graffiti on highway overpasses. James White (This information sheet is divided into two sections – the first explores the meaning of John 1:1, and the second addresses the more technical subject of the correct translation of the verse. As to ὅτι (because), if it were the true reading, it would be necessary to make it relate either to the testimony of the apostles in John 1:14, or to that of the Baptist in John 1:15. The meaning of this, while pretty simple, is incredibly powerful. 1 John 2:10-17. John 15:16 matters a lot in our Christian life. Why is this one verse so important? So whatever does not agree with the truth is false or unprofitable. That Jesus would be speaking of 'the elect' is pre-empted by the very context in which he is speaking. For - Always stop and interrogate this small but strategic term of explanation. This does not mean that you believe them into being. 20 For everyone who does evil hates the Light and does not come to the Light, so that his actions may not be exposed. What does 1 John 4:16 mean? Romans 1:16 (NASB) says: For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. It must be this way because this is our one and only opportunity for salvation, and sin was what cut us off from God in the first place, causing us to need salvation. Please explain its meaning. John 1:16. This verse does not say, “In the beginning was Jesus.” “The Word” is not synonymous with Jesus, or even “the Messiah.” The word logos in John 1:1 refers to God’s creative self-expression—His reason, purposes and plans, especially as they are brought into action. What does John 1:16 mean? [⇑ See verse text ⇑] Verse 3 was John's first mention of fellowship, both between believers and with God. 16. of his fulness--of "grace and truth," resuming the thread of John 1:14. grace for grace--that is, grace upon grace (so all the best interpreters), in successive communications and larger measures, as each was able to take it … It is poetic prose—prose with the soul of poetry—prose that, like poetry, packs layers of meaning in a word or phrase. Of His fullness - To what does this A. 15 John * testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘ He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. Like the old saying goes: If all you have is Christ, then you have all you need! Why is the glorification in John 17:1 circular? No other verse in the Bible … The strong assertion, “Except a man be born again.” The word “again” (anoôthen PWS: 80) … New King James Version ... NKJV Word Study Bible: 1,700 Key Words that Unlock the Meaning of the Bible. JOHN 3:19-21 19 “And this is the condemnation, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the Light because their actions were evil. I had been building a friendship with an expatriate from the U. S. His mother was an Ecuadorian and he had married a beautiful young Ecuadorian woman. We also read of Christ in Colossians 2:9-10, “For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. . That is not authentic faith. Not the language of the Baptist (Heracleon, Origen, Rupertus, Erasmus, Luther, Melancthon, Lange), against which ἡμεῖς πάντες is decisive, but that of the evangelist continued. John 3:1-16 You Must be Born Again "Lord," I prayed, "give me an opportunity to share Christ with my friend." Let’s end this meditation by reading 1 Corinthians 1:4, “I thank my God always on your behalf, for the grace of God which is given you by Jesus Christ. John 1:16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. "Of," or better, out of this fulness does each individual receive, and thus the ideal church becomes "his body, the fulness of him that filleth all things in … In these lay many invalids—blind, lame, and paralysed. John 1:16 Context. But he who enters by the door is a shepherd of the sheep. John 1:16 grace upon grace NASB [or grace in place of grace NABRE]. Therefore, he frames matters in absolute terms, offering no middle ground regarding sin and one's relationships with God and fellow man. As wonderful as the work of Moses had been for Israel, as defining as the Torah (the Law that God gave Moses) was for humankind, Jesus is greater still. Either translation is good since the Greek allows it. The strong assertion, “Except a man be born again.” The word “again” (anoôthen PWS: 80) has three different meanings in Greek. Thank you for your insight in advance. UK Apologetics Reply: Okay, Let us look at this: If you see any brother or sister commit a sin that does not lead to death, you should pray and God will give them life. Retail: $54.99. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] The ultimate expression of God's love for mankind is grace. For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.” Along with that, let’s go back and read John 1:1, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”, There can be no doubt as to who the Word is. And He was ‘made flesh, and dwelt among us.’ The Word is the Lord Jesus Christ, the living Word of God. What "hour" (John 17:1) had come? Jesus the True Shepherd. Why is the order of Jesus’ calling His disciples different in some of the gospels? After this there was a festival of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. EXEGESIS: JOHN 1:1-18. Several versions of the Bible translate this phrase as ‘grace upon grace’, which, I believe, is its literal meaning. Why do Christians today close eyes and clasp hands to pray? Answer: We often see signs and banners at sporting events that say "John 3:16." 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. I had been building a friendship with an expatriate from the U. S. His mother was an Ecuadorian and he had married a beautiful young Ecuadorian woman. Why? What is the meaning of “grace upon grace” in John 1:16? John 3:18 states, “He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.” This means that our witness to unbelievers must include sin, righteousness, and judgment, along with faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, as the only remedy for our helpless condition. John was not intimating that there was no grace under the Law of Moses, for every sacrifice spoke of the beautiful final sacrifice, Who was to be lifted up on the cross. This shows the English words related to the source biblical texts along with brief definitions. Concerning grace, an explanation was given at John 1:16: concerning truth, see below, John 1:18 [Comp. In my judgment, 1 John 5:16 echoes Jeremiah 11, and similar texts in that book. John 3:1-16 You Must be Born Again "Lord," I prayed, "give me an opportunity to share Christ with my friend." It was the grace of God that allowed us to be saved, “For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God.” (Ephesians 2:8) It is the ‘abundant grace’ of God that sustains and strengthens us as we live for Him. Pilate declares that the Jews have a custom for deliverance. I am not saying that you should pray about that. We need to make sure that we see these two verses as part of the larger balancing act that John is doing in this letter. Although he was born and educated in the U. S., his parents brought him to his mother's country every summer to visit her family. So.. what does 1 John 5:16-17" 16If anyone sees his brother commit a sin that does not lead to death, he should pray and God will give him life. Wrongly so, John 3:16 is often written as graffiti on highway overpasses. Steven Cole favors John 1:16 as explaining John 1:14. The Passover feast was a memorial for God’s deliverance. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. God […] Discussion in 'Baptists' started by MagusAlbertus, Apr 7, 2006. If God is light and has no darkness (1 John 1:5), then a believer cannot both walk with God and walk in darkness. John 1:17. Notice the leading question Pilate asks: “Do you want me to release to you th… John 1:16 Context. I have read already that some people say that Colossians 1:16 does not mean Jesus was the agent of creation, but of his own dominion. It refers to … 2 This Mary, whose brother Lazarus now lay sick, was the same one who poured perfume on the Lord and wiped his feet with her hair. Does this refer to Christ as Grace, who loves us so much He gives grace to us? The “shepherd of the sheep” in this illustration is Jesus Christ (John 10:11) and any other person is a robber or thief (John 10:7-8). Real faith is based on real Truth. Question: "What does John 3:16 mean?" 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. It is patient and kind. There is a sin that leads to death. Key Thought. JOHN 3:19-21 19 “And this is the condemnation, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the Light because their actions were evil. John 1:17(ESV) Verse Thoughts. We should always see to it that the life we are leading is fulfilling this purpose that is captured in John 15:16, for as we fulfill our purpose, we prove to … What does this verse really mean? Pilate will release one person to the Jews for the Passover. I. What Does It Mean To Be Born Again? But before he gets to the meaning, he gives us a picture of what it looks like not to abide in him. The former rendering tells us that more grace is given while the latter speaks about grace that is received in the New Covenant. What Does John 1:17 Mean? The establishment of God's covenant with Israel is described in the Bible in Ex. What does John 1:1,14 mean when it says that Jesus is the Word of God? WE receive the benefit of that! The meaning of this, while pretty simple, is incredibly powerful. He was in the beginning. Nor was he implying there was an absence of truth, for God's truth endures throughout all generations. 1 Now a man named Lazarus was sick. Born Again Defined. For the law was given through Moses, but God’s unfailing love and faithfulness came through Jesus Christ. what does 1 John 5:16-17 mean?! Some "entertainers" have thrown in a twist and replaced "John" with "something else 3:16." I. I refer to those whose sin does not lead to death. 2 But he who enters by the door is the shepherd of the sheep. After this there was a festival of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.” God loves you so much that He sent His Son, Jesus Christ, to be born on earth and die on a cross. 1. Jesus is the Good Shepherd. Your answer might be different than mine. The exposition belongs to the Notes on these passages. This is different from mercy, which means not getting what you actually do deserve. Regarding the meaning of the text. We have also (according to John 1:16) received ‘grace for grace’. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.” God loves you so much that He sent His Son, Jesus […] A. The Greek phrasing could be translated as "grace upon grace," or "grace in place of grace." It also means that the Insider Movement, which has changed the terms “Father” and “Son” because they are offensive to Muslims has perverted the core of the gospel. The former rendering tells us that more grace is given while the latter speaks about grace that is received in the New Covenant. . 17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. (202.2). Does the Apostle John seem to make a distinction between God … You might have seen the verse at a football game, but what does it mean? Now in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate there is a pool, called in Hebrew Beth-zatha, which has five porticoes. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] John includes both himself and his readers as believers in the beginning of this verse. But what about John 1:3, what does "through" mean there? 20 For everyone who does evil hates the Light and does not come to the Light, so that his actions may not be exposed. Key Thought. That is exactly what the text says—but what does it mean? In John 5:23 Jesus states, “He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.” This means that the cults, which all deny the deity of Jesus, cannot bring anyone to God. In Christ, we have all we will ever need. John 1:16. “Every branch in Me that does not bear fruit He [God] takes away; and every branch that bears fruit He prunes, that it may bear more fruit.” ~Jesus in John 15:2 If you have ever wondered why you suffer losses–a job, a come, a business, a marriage, etc.–take a deeper look into the verse above. 3 So the sisters sent word to Jesus, "Lord, the one you love is sick.". New King James Version Update. John was not intimating that there was no grace under the Law of Moses, for every sacrifice spoke of the beautiful final sacrifice, Who was to be lifted up on the cross. 2 But he who enters by the door is the shepherd of the sheep. What does 1 John 1:6 mean? Let’s read ahead a little and consider John 1:29, “The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.” John’s work was foretold in Malachi 3:1, “Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me…”. Jesus the True Shepherd. Verse 14 tells us that the Lord was ‘full of grace and truth.’ WE (as believers on the Lord Jesus Christ) receive supply for all our needs out of the ‘fullness’ of Christ. 10 “Most assuredly, I say to you, he who does not enter the sheepfold by the door, but climbs up some other way, the same is a thief and a robber. Apr 7, 2006 #1. “If anyone does not abide in me he is thrown away like a branch and withers, and the branches are gathered, thrown into the fire, and burned” (John 15:6). In 1 John 5:16-17, what is meant by the sin that leads to death? GRACE for our every need; GRACE to walk in fellowship with Him; GRACE to overcome all obstacles that would hinder our faithful walk; GRACE to learn and live for Him; and when the time comes…GRACE to die! I have read this as "grace for grace" in other bible translations. This definition isn’t far off from what Jesus is telling us to do here in John 15. NKJV, Lucado Encouraging Word Bible, Comfort Print: Holy Bible, New King James Version. What does it mean that Jesus is the Lamb of God? God's blessings to us in Jesus are beyond our scope of imagining. Retail: $39.99. (John 1:18) What does it mean that Jesus is the "Only God" or the "Only Begotten God"? Of his fulness - In John 1:14 the evangelist has said that Christ was "full of grace and truth." In these lay many invalids—blind, lame, and paralysed. This is another indication that John does not mean sinless perfection by the phrase walk in the light; otherwise, there would be no sin to cleanse in this ongoing sense. He finished it, put the capstone on it, and revealed it to us. THE PROLOGUE TO THE GOSPEL OF JOHN. How we should thank the Lord daily for His grace! He was with God and is God, Himself. To answer your good question, let’s begin by reading John 1:14-17, “And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. The Apostle James had this to say in James 4:6, “But he giveth more grace….” What exactly is grace? On the one hand, there’s a strong emphasis in 1 John … Regarding the meaning of the text. The interpretation of the parable is given to us by Jesus Himself in John 10:7-16. “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” The word ‘complete’ means to be ‘made full’. My Prayer. Who has the authority over all human beings? We are complete in Him! Who was John the Baptist in the Bible? All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that does not lead to death” (1 John 5:16–17). It does not mean “grace on top of grace” or “one grace after another,” like Christmas presents piled … , called in Hebrew Beth-zatha, which is the shepherd of the gospels Bible in Ex sporting events say... One man was there who had been ill for thirty-eight years 3:16 is written... 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